| Author |
Comment/Response |
James Creswell
|
 12/02/12 10:55pm
If you include an arbitrary constant of integration, both answers are equivalent.
This is because csc^2(x) = cot^2(x) + 1.
From this identity, it is clear that we would expect csc^2(x) and cot^2(x) to have the same derivative.
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