Services & Resources / Wolfram Forums
-----
 /
MathGroup Archive
2001
*January
*February
*March
*April
*May
*June
*July
*August
*September
*October
*November
*December
*Archive Index
*Ask about this page
*Print this page
*Give us feedback
*Sign up for the Wolfram Insider

MathGroup Archive 2001

[Date Index] [Thread Index] [Author Index]

Search the Archive

Re: proof by induction?

  • To: mathgroup at smc.vnet.net
  • Subject: [mg29737] Re: [mg29729] proof by induction?
  • From: Ken Levasseur <Kenneth_Levasseur at uml.edu>
  • Date: Fri, 6 Jul 2001 03:24:33 -0400 (EDT)
  • References: <200107042243.SAA17412@smc.vnet.net>
  • Sender: owner-wri-mathgroup at wolfram.com

The question below is ill-posed in that there is nothing to prove.   If you
are given an equation like
S= A((r^n+1)-1)/(r-1), there isn't much to say about it.   On the other
hand if you are given that
S=A + Ar + Ar^2 + ... + Ar^n,  then you might want to prove that S is equal
to the given equation.  This is a standard textbook example on induction
and I wouldn't feel comfortable providing the proof  to what is probably a
homework assignment in this forum.

Ken Levasseur
Math. Sciences
UMass Lowell

WebMaster at FarOffGrace.com wrote:

> I'm trying to solve this question, where I must prove this equation by
> induction, but im totally stumped, im hoping you can help me out, thanks
> the equation is
>
> S= A((r^n+1)-1)/(r-1)



  • Prev by Date: Re: proof by induction?
  • Next by Date: Re:Drawing a Washer, Polar Plot Question
  • Previous by thread: proof by induction?
  • Next by thread: Re: proof by induction?