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Re: 0^0 = 1?

  • To: mathgroup at smc.vnet.net
  • Subject: [mg95585] Re: [mg95555] 0^0 = 1?
  • From: Kristjan Kannike <kkannike at physic.ut.ee>
  • Date: Thu, 22 Jan 2009 06:59:55 -0500 (EST)
  • References: <200901211148.GAA12585@smc.vnet.net>

On Wed, 21 Jan 2009 ivflam at gmail.com wrote:

> Mathematica says 0^0 = Indeterminate
> Derive says 0^0 = 1
>
> May I have any opinions?
>
> Bruno
>

"Concrete Mathematics" by Graham, Knuth and Patashnik says 0^0 = 1 for
purposes of discrete mathematics so the binomial theorem is valid for x =
0, y = 0, and/or x = -y. As they say: "The theorem is too important to be
arbitrarily restricted! By contrast, the function 0^x is quite
unimportant."

Kristjan
<http://www.physic.ut.ee/~kkannike/>
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