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Re: Numerical Determinants

• To: mathgroup at smc.vnet.net
• Subject: [mg13107] Re: Numerical Determinants
• From: hello at there.com (Rod Pinna)
• Date: Tue, 7 Jul 1998 03:44:10 -0400
• Organization: UWA
• References: <6n4o6m$nin@smc.vnet.net> <6n9m67$9hq@smc.vnet.net> <6nnb0k$5em@smc.vnet.net>
• Sender: owner-wri-mathgroup at wolfram.com

In article <6nnb0k$5em at smc.vnet.net>, Paul Abbott <paul at physics.uwa.edu.au> wrote:
>Rod Pinna wrote:

>Why not?  Your problem is clearly a generalized eigenvalue problem.  For
>non-zero p you can rewrite A.x=p B.x as B.x=(1/p) A.x.  For invertible
>A you then have Inverse[A].B.x = (1/p) x which is the formula that
>you're using.
>

Which probably indicates that I should have listened better in  first
year mathematics :)

That was the idea I was following, but since it hadn't been  mentioned
as a method in a couple of the texts I consulted, I  thought that there
might be something I was missing. Basically,  everything talks about
inverting the B matrix, but then doesn't  mention what to do in B in
singular. As the above *seemed*  obvious, I thought that there might be
a reason it wasn't  mentioned.

Thanks for the advice.
Rod.


Rod Pinna
(rpinnaX at XcivilX.uwa.edu.au  Remove the X for email)