Re: (a-b)/(c-d)=!=(b-a)/(d-c) ???

*To*: mathgroup at smc.vnet.net*Subject*: [mg13009] Re: [mg12964] (a-b)/(c-d)=!=(b-a)/(d-c) ???*From*: BobHanlon at aol.com*Date*: Tue, 30 Jun 1998 00:26:06 -0400*Sender*: owner-wri-mathgroup at wolfram.com

Because === asks whether they are literally identical, not just equal (see on- line Help for SameQ). Before you apply Simplify to the rhs, they are not literally identical; whereas, after you apply Simplify to the rhs, they are. You could also use (a-b)/(c-d) == (b-a)/(d-c) // Simplify Bob Hanlon In a message dated 6/28/98 6:32:16 AM, tdelling at ews.uiuc.edu wrote: >How come >(a-b)/(c-d) === (b-a)/(d-c) > >returns False, i.e. TrueQ[ (a-b)/(c-d) =!= (b-a)/(d-c) ] returns True, > >but > >(a-b)/(c-d) === Simplify[ (b-a)/(d-c) ] > >returns True ??? > >Why does mere simplification change anything? I'm using Mathematica >3.0.? on win95.