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MathGroup Archive 2001

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Re: Q: Is there an "inverse" of ToRules?

  • To: mathgroup at
  • Subject: [mg31058] Re: [mg31038] Q: Is there an "inverse" of ToRules?
  • From: BobHanlon at
  • Date: Sat, 6 Oct 2001 03:32:28 -0400 (EDT)
  • Sender: owner-wri-mathgroup at

In a message dated 2001/10/5 1:48:07 AM, mcoleman at writes:

>Is there an "inverse" to the ToRules function? That is, a function 
>that converts rules to equations (expressed in == form), which could 
>then be used in the Solve function?

{a -> b, c -> d, e -> f} /. 
  (x_ -> y_) :> (x == y)

{a == b, c == d, e == f}

Bob Hanlon
Chantilly, VA  USA

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